KVS NVS Exam Analysis 2026 LIVE: Check Paper Difficulty Level, Good Attempts and More

Q1. 'कम भोजन करने वाले' के लिए एक शब्द है-

(1) निराहारी (2) शाकाहारी (3) मांसाहारी (4) अल्पाहारी

Q2. 'अपने व्यय पर नियंत्रण रखिए क्योंकि                 वाले को सदा कष्ट होता है।'

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए उचित मुहावरे का चयन करिए -

(1) चादर से बाहर पैर पसारने                    (2) जान पर खेलने

(3) गागर में सागर भरने                          (4) कान लगाकर सुनने

Q3. 'इस कविता में कवि ने सत्य की खोज से जुड़ी बातों की ओर               किया है ।

उपर्युक्त पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सही शब्द का चयन करें -

(1) प्रसार        (2) वर्णन        (3) संकेत       (4) उल्लेख

Q4. 'रोगमुक्त' का सामासिक विग्रह है -

(1) रोग पर मुक्त                           (2) रोग के लिए मुक्त

(3) रोग से मुक्त                            (4) रोग में मुक्त

Q5. 'रेखांकित' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद है -

(1) रे + खांकित                          (2) रेखा + अंकित

(3) रेख + अंकित                        (4) रेखां + कित

Q1. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence. Ravi is a courageous boy.

(1) Verb     (2) Adverb     (3) Adjective     (4) Noun

Q2. Identify the clause of the underlined part of the given sentence.

He could not give a reply to the question that I asked him

(1) Adverb Clause                    (2) Adjective Clause

(3) Principal Clause                  (4) Noun Clause

Q3. Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word given below. ENORMOUS

(1) Strong    (2) Weak     (3) Tiny    (4) Vast

Q4. Identify the meaning of the underlined Idiom used in the given sentence.

His professor called for an explanation of his conduct.

(1) demanded    (2) avoided    (3) suggested    (4) offered

Q5. One of the parts of the following sentence may or may not have an error. Identify the one with the error.

Idioms used to convey         a message in a more creative way

           (a)                                                    (b)

are like the spice                    that make your writing flavourful

           (c)                                                     (d)

(1) (d)        (2) (a)        (3) (b)       (4) (c)

Q1. The Venn Diagram below best represents the relationship between among which of the classes given in the options?

(1) Women, Mothers, Widows

(2) Beverages, Tea, Coffee

(3) Sparrows, Birds, Mice

(4) Students, Cricket Players, Tennis Fans

Q2. Select the letter-number cluster that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

X6L, T5J, P4H, L3F,_?.

(1) K2C      (2) J2E      (3) H2D      (4) 12B

Q3. A statement is followed by two assumptions numbered (I) and (II). Consider the statement and assumptions. Decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the statement?

Statement: Helping the poor is the real service to the humanity.

Assumptions: (I) Poor people are in need of help from others.

(II) If we do not help poor, we will not be called human being.

(1) Neither assumption (I) nor assumption (II) is implicit.

(2) Only assumption (I) is implicit.

(3) Only assumption (II) is implicit.

(4) Both assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.

Q4. Two statements are given below and these are labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Vitamin C is destroyed by heating.

Reason (R): Vitamin C is water-soluble and heat-sensitive.

Select the correct answer from the following options:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (А).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Q5. Amit and Bhuvan start from the same point. Amit drives 50 km East. Bhuvan drives 15 km North then turns East and drives 20 km, then turns to his right and drives 15 km. Where and in which direction is Bhuvan now with respect to Amit?

(1) 70 km, West                    (2) 30 km, East

(3) 70 km, East                     (4) 30 km, West

Q1. गांधी-इर्विन समझौता के फलस्वरूप क्या हुआ ?

(1) महात्मा गांधी मुस्लिम के लिए पृथक निर्वाचन मंडल के लिए सहमत हो गए।

(2) महात्मा गांधी ने रॉलेट एक्ट के विरुद्ध आन्दोलन वापस ले लिया।

(3) महात्मा गांधी ने द्वितीय गोल मेज सम्मेलन में हिस्सा लिया।

(4) महात्मा गांधी ने कैबिनेट मिशन प्लान को स्वीकार कर लिया।

Q2. सौरमंडल का एकमात्र ग्रह निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा है जिसके नाम की व्युत्पत्ति ग्रीक (यूनानी) या रोमन पौराणिक कथा से नहीं हुई है ?

(1) शुक्र     (2) बुध     (3) बृहस्पति      (4) पृथ्वी

Q3. अगस्त, 2025 में भारतीय विशिष्ट पहचान प्राधिकरण (यूआईडीएआई) ने आधार के कामकाज को सुदृढ़ करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से किस संस्था के साथ 5 वर्षीय अनुसंधान और विकास करार पर हस्ताक्षर किया ?

(1) भारतीय प्रौद्योगिकी संस्थान (आईआईटी), दिल्ली

(2) भारतीय सांख्यिकी संस्थान (आईएसआई)

(3) भारतीय विज्ञान संस्थान (आईआईएससी), बेंगलुरू

(4) राष्ट्रीय सूचना विज्ञान केन्द्र (एनआईसी)

Q4. 71वां राष्ट्रीय फिल्म पुरस्कार, 2023 जिसकी घोषणा अगस्त, 2025 में हुई, उसमें एवीजीसी (एनिमेशन, विजुवलइफेक्ट्स, गेमिंग एण्ड कॉमिक) श्रेणी में निम्नलिखित में से किस फिल्म को 'स्वर्णकमल' पुरस्कार प्राप्त हुआ ?

(1) 'स्नेक एण्ड लैडर'                                     (2) 'गणेश' 

(3) 'पवनपुत्र'                                             (4) 'हनुमान'

Q5. 'ब्राइट-स्टार' अभ्यास के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

(a) यह ब्राजील द्वारा आयोजित भारतीय सशस्त्र बल और ब्राजील के मध्य किया जानेवाला द्विपक्षीय अभ्यास है।

(b) 'ब्राइट-स्टार 2025' का आयोजन 28 अगस्त से 10 सितम्बर, 2025 तक हुआ।

सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(1) न तो (a) न (b) सही है।                         (2) केवल (a) सही है।

(3) केवल (b) सही है।                                (4) (a) और (b) दोनों सही है।

The General Knowledge section is ome of the six sections that are included in KVS PRT Tier-1 paper. Here are some of the questions from the General Knowledge section:

Q1. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact led to which of the following?

(1) M.K. Gandhi's agreement on separate electorate for Muslims.

(2) Withdrawal of the Anti-Rowlett agitation by M.K. Gandhi.

(3) M.K. Gandhi's participation in the Second Round Table Conference.

(4) Acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan by M.K. Gandhi.

Q2. Which of the following is the only planet in the solar system whose name has not been derived from Greek or Roman mythology?

(1) Venus (2) Mercury (3) Jupiter (4) Earth

Q3. In August 2025, the UIDAI signed a 5-years R&D agreement to strengthen Aadhaar operations with which of the following institutions?

(1) IIT Delhi

(2) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) 103117

(3) Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru

(4) National Informatics Centre (NIC)

Q4. Which film was awarded 'Swarna Kamal' in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic) category in the 71st National Film Awards for the year 2023, which were announced in August 2025?

(1) 'Snake and ladder                      (2) 'Ganesh

(3) Pawanputra'                              (4) 'Hanu-man'

Q5. Consider the following statements about Exercise 'BRIGHT STAR':

(a) It's a bilateral exercise between the armed forces of India and Brazil hosted by Brazil.

(b) 'BRIGHT STAR 2025' was held from August 28 to September 10, 2025.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.          (2) Only (a) is correct.

(3) Only (b) is correct.                         (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

The KVS PRT paper was held in the morning shift. Here we are providing some of the questions that have been asked in the Basic Computer Literacy section:

Q1. An online system that helps people to find information on the internet by scanning web pages and other online resources and presenting a list of relevant results based on user input is called:

(1) Social Media Platform           (2) Web Browser

(3) Search Engine                     (4) Web Server

Q2. Find an input device out of the following.

(1) Barcode Printer                   (2) Plotter

(3) Speaker                             (4) Joystick

Q3. The keyboard shortcut that adds the current webpage to your bookmarks in most web browsers is:

(1) Ctrl+A (2) Ctrl+B (3) Ctrl+D (4) Ctrl+H

Q4. Which one of the following is an invalid IP address (as per IPv4)?

(1) 192.101.102.200                 (2) 130.302.130.100

(3) 105.0.0.1 4                         (4) 1.10.100.111

Q5. With respect to Computer Networks, in the acronym WWW, the W in the second position refers to:

(1) Wide                                  (2) World 

(3) Web                                   (4) Website

• Out of the six sections of the KVS PRT Tier-1 paper, Numeric Ability is one of them. Here are the list of topics tha have been asked from this section:
• Data Interpretation
• Profit, Loss and Discount
• Number Series
• Prime Factorisation
• Fractions
• Simple Interest
• Mathematical Operations

The KVS PRT Tier-1 exam consists of six sections, out of them one is General Reasoning. The reasoning part consists of 20 questions. The topics from which the questions have been asked in this year's papers are given below:

• Inequality (Mathematical inequality relastionships)
• Assumptions (Implicit and Explicit)
• Venn Diagrams
• Letter Series
• Syllogisms (Statements and Conclusions)
• Blood Relations
• Distance and direction problems
• Odd one out (alphanumeric and symbol patterns)
• Day and date based questions

The exam for the post of Multi-Tasking Staff in NVS is also being conducted today, 10 January 2026 in a single shift from 02:30 pm to 04:30 pm. The recruitment examination process for the post of Multi-Tasking Staff is a two stage process consisiting of Tier-1 and Tier-2 examination, which means there will be no Interview/ Skill Test for this post. The final merit will be prepared based on the marks obtained in Tier-2 only.

The KVS PRT Tier-1 exam consists of six sections. These sections include 100 questions. These are:

• General Reasoning
• Numeric Ability
• Basic Computer Literacy
• General Knowledge
• English Language
• Modern Indian Language

The PRT Tier-1 exam has been concluded now and the candidates have provided their feedback on the difficulty level of the exam as being moderate. Now, there are a total of 100 questions (objective-type) in the paper which consist of 300 marks. The candidates are required to score in a safe range so as to be eligible to clear the exam easily. The safe range prescribed for the PRT exam is around 68-79. These number of questions must have been attempted to qualify easily. Check the sectio-wise good attempts here:

The KVS PRT Tier-1 exam was conducted in the mornign shift from 09:30 am to 11:30 am. The overall PRT paper was moderate in difficulty. The paper was balanced with a mix of questions and slightly time-consuming. The PRT paper consists of 100 MCQs with a total of 300 marks. Each question carries 3 marks. There is no provision for negative marking. Check the section-wise difficulty level below:

The KVS PRT Tier-1 examinations was concluded at 11:30 am and as per the initial candidates feedback, the exam was considered to be of "Moderate" difficulty level. The exam was on general lines and according to the syllabus and exam pattern. There were no major changes seen in the question paper.

With the official notice being released on 14 November 2025, the total number of vacancies allotted for the post of Primary Teachers (PRT) at KVS schools was 3,365 which with further notice were revised to 3,630. This presents a more greater opportunity for the candidates who were appearing for the exam i.e., more vacancies means good chance for a candidate to get selected.

The short notice regarding the KVS NVS Recruitment 2025 was released on 13 November 2025 which mentions the application process dates. The registration for the KVS NVS recruitment were started from 14 November 2025 onwards.

The Tier-1 exam for the post of Junior Assistant and Lab Attendant is being held in the morning shift from 09:30 am to 11:30 am. The candidates who have applied for these posts can check the exam analysis here after the exam gets over.

The Central Board of Secondary Education is conducting the Tier-1 examination for recruitment to KVS and NVS schools across the country. The exam for the post of Primary Teacher (PRT) is being conducted today, 10 January 2026 in the morning shift from 09:30 am to 11:30 am.